
CANINE



This section covers the most clinically relevant neurologic and musculoskeletal conditions in dogs, with a focus on high-yield topics for NAVLE preparation. From intervertebral disc disease and peripheral neuropathies to orthopedic disorders like cruciate ligament rupture and hip dysplasia, each note includes key clinical signs, diagnostic approaches, and treatment strategies to support strong case-based reasoning on exam day.
Notes:
Do you have any feedback about the Quick Note?
We'd love to hear from you!
Feel free to send us a message
Don't forget to share with any friends who are also
preparing for the NAVLE Test.

Ready to test your knowledge after reading the full note? ...
Scroll down to challenge yourself with our flashcards!
🧠💡📚
Explore additional sections of the NAVLE Canine Notes:

Flashcards
Question1:
Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming acquired myasthenia gravis in dogs, and what is its sensitivity?
Options:
A) Tensilon test; Sensitivity ~50%
B) Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (AChR-Ab) titer; Sensitivity >95%
C) Electromyography (EMG); Sensitivity ~60%
D) Muscle biopsy; Sensitivity ~40%
Question 2:
Which clinical signs most strongly support a diagnosis of generalized acquired myasthenia gravis in a middle-aged dog?
Options:
A) Sudden-onset seizures, ataxia, anisocoria
B) Intermittent cranial nerve deficits with peripheral lymphadenopathy
C) Progressive exercise-induced appendicular weakness and regurgitation from megaesophagus
D) Fever, non-regenerative anemia, thrombocytopenia
Question 3:
Which of the following is an appropriate pharmacological treatment plan for a dog diagnosed with acquired MG and aspiration pneumonia?
Options:
A) Pyridostigmine alone until clinical remission is achieved
B) Corticosteroids as monotherapy to suppress antibody production
C) Pyridostigmine with cautious immunosuppression, oxygen support, and antibiotics
D) Cyclosporine and NSAIDs for anti-inflammatory support
Question 4:
A 5-year-old Golden Retriever presents with unilateral miosis, mild ptosis, and third eyelid protrusion. Neurologic and ophthalmic exams confirm Horner’s syndrome. Pharmacologic testing with 1% phenylephrine causes rapid pupil dilation within 15 minutes. Which lesion localization is most likely?
Options:
A. First-order neuron (central)
B. Second-order neuron (preganglionic)
C. Third-order neuron (postganglionic)
D. Idiopathic Horner’s syndrome cannot be localized
Question 5:
A 3-year-old domestic shorthair cat presents with unilateral miosis, enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion. Which additional finding best supports Horner’s syndrome rather than another ophthalmic disorder?
Options:
A. Mydriasis with absent pupillary light reflex
B. Ptosis of the upper eyelid
C. Dazzle reflex absence
D. Corneal ulceration with conjunctival hyperemia
Question 6:
A 6-year-old mixed-breed dog presents with unilateral Horner’s syndrome after cervical trauma two weeks ago. Otoscopic exam is normal, and thoracic imaging is unremarkable. Which statement about this patient’s prognosis is most accurate?
Options:
A. Prognosis is guarded unless topical phenylephrine is administered daily
B. Most traumatic or idiopathic cases resolve within weeks to months
C. Central lesions always have a good prognosis with no treatment
D. Prognosis cannot be determined without cerebrospinal fluid analysis
scroll down to read the answers

Answers
Answer 1:
B) Serum acetylcholine receptor antibody (AChR-Ab) titer; Sensitivity >95%
Explanation:
The gold standard for diagnosing acquired MG is the measurement of circulating antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor. This test has a sensitivity >95% and high specificity in generalized cases. EMG may support the diagnosis via a decremental response but is less sensitive. The Tensilon test is less reliable in dogs and mostly of historical interest.
Answer 2:
C) Progressive exercise-induced appendicular weakness and regurgitation from megaesophagus
Explanation:
Generalized MG typically presents with symmetrical skeletal muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Megaesophagus is common due to impaired neuromuscular control of the esophagus. Regurgitation may lead to aspiration pneumonia, which worsens the prognosis. The disease does not typically involve systemic inflammation or hematologic abnormalities.
Answer 3:
C) Pyridostigmine with cautious immunosuppression, oxygen support, and antibiotics
Explanation:
Pyridostigmine is a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor that improves neuromuscular transmission. In cases complicated by aspiration pneumonia, antimicrobial therapy and oxygen are essential. Immunosuppression (e.g., prednisolone) may be introduced cautiously once infection is controlled. NSAIDs are contraindicated in MG due to risk of GI and renal side effects, especially in debilitated patients.
Answer 4:
C. Third-order neuron (postganglionic)
Explanation:
-
The sympathetic pathway to the eye involves three neurons:
-
First-order (central): Hypothalamus → cervical spinal cord (T1–T3).
-
Second-order (preganglionic): Spinal cord → thoracic cavity → vagosympathetic trunk → cranial cervical ganglion.
-
Third-order (postganglionic): Cranial cervical ganglion → through middle ear → orbit and ocular muscles.
-
-
Pharmacologic localization testing with 1% phenylephrine:
-
Rapid dilation (<20 min): Postganglionic lesion due to denervation hypersensitivity.
-
Delayed or absent dilation (>45 min): Central or preganglionic lesion.
-
-
In this case, rapid dilation supports a third-order lesion, commonly associated with otitis media/interna or orbital disease.
Answer 5:
B. Ptosis of the upper eyelid
Explanation:
-
Horner’s syndrome is caused by sympathetic denervation of ocular and periocular structures, leading to:
-
Miosis (loss of sympathetic dilator control)
-
Ptosis (Müller’s muscle paralysis in upper eyelid)
-
Enophthalmos (loss of orbital smooth muscle tone)
-
Third eyelid protrusion (secondary to globe recession)
-
-
Differentiation from other disorders:
-
Mydriasis with absent PLR suggests CN III dysfunction.
-
Absent dazzle reflex may indicate retinal or optic nerve pathology, not Horner’s.
-
Corneal ulceration may cause conjunctival hyperemia and third eyelid elevation but lacks miosis and ptosis.
-
Answer 6:
B. Most traumatic or idiopathic cases resolve within weeks to months
Explanation:
-
Causes of Horner’s syndrome:
-
First-order lesions: Intracranial disease, spinal cord trauma, neoplasia.
-
Second-order lesions: Brachial plexus injury, thoracic masses, cervical trauma.
-
Third-order lesions: Otitis media/interna, orbital masses, idiopathic causes.
-
-
Idiopathic cases are most common in dogs (up to 50%) and often resolve spontaneously within 6–8 weeks.
-
Prognosis is favorable unless caused by underlying neoplasia, severe CNS disease, or progressive infections.
-
Treatment focuses on managing the primary cause; phenylephrine can improve cosmetic appearance but doesn’t influence recovery time.

